IBM Introduction to Cloud Computing Graded Quiz
In this graded assessment, you will demonstrate your understanding of the basics of cloud computing and key considerations for organizations to move to the cloud.
1 In the US National Institute of Standards and Technology, NIST, the definition of “cloud computing”, what does the statement “shared pool of configurable computing resources” include?
A Data Security, associated with loss or unavailability of data causing business disruption
B Leverage cloud services over the open internet on hardware owned by the cloud provider
C Networks, servers, storage, applications, and Services
D Five essential characteristics, three deployment models, three service models
Ans. C
2 What tasks do hypervisors accomplish? Select two.
A Enable multiple operating systems to run alongside each other, sharing the same physical computing resources
B Facilitate access to mainframes for multiple users to access the same data storage layer.
C Scale on-demand to support fluctuating workloads.
D Separates VMs logically and assigns each a share of the underlying computing power, memory, and storage.
Ans. A, D
3 What are some of the cloud benefits that make it a lower risk for enterprises to adopt cloud? Select two.
A Data security associated with loss or unavailability of data causing business disruption
B The pay-as-you-go model allows enterprises to experiment with technologies as opposed to making long-term decisions based on little or no trial.
C Diversity of standardization in how the constantly evolving technologies integrate and interoperate.
D The speed with which applications can be up and running on the cloud versus months on traditional platforms means enterprises can experiment, fail fast, learn, and course-correct without setting them back significantly.
Ans. B, D
4 An IBM Institute for Business Value study says that more than three-quarters of enterprises today are using cloud computing to expand into new industries. What additional benefits do organizations find when adopting the cloud:
A Continue making expensive decisions because it often worked in the past
B Avoid having to fail at all
C Lengthen product lifecycles to ensure higher quality offerings
D Improve customer experience and create enhanced products and services
Ans. D
5 What is the three-way symbiotic relationship between AI, IoT, and Cloud?
A IoT delivers the data, AI powers the insights, and both emerging technologies leverage the cloud’s scalability and processing power
B Power, scale, dynamic nature, and economics of the cloud resources
C Making sense of the endless streams of data from IoT devices
D AI consumes the data produced by IoT devices
Ans. A
6 What is the three-way relationship between blockchain, AI, and the Cloud
A An immutable network allows members to view only those transactions that are relevant to them.
B Lends trust and transparency to AI by recording the data and variables that go into a decision made in an AI algorithm.
C Blockchain provides the trusted, decentralized source of truth, AI powers the analytics and decisions made from the collected data, and cloud provides the globally distributed, scalable, and cost-efficient computing resources to support both technologies
D Globally distributed, scalable, and cost-efficient computing resources
Ans. C
7 Which of these statements are true of Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs)? Select two.
A VPCs are provisioned in a logically isolated part of a shared public cloud
B The VPC infrastructure is owned, managed and operated by the public cloud service provider
C VPCs may be provisioned over a cloud service provider’s infrastructure, but the infrastructure is owned, managed, and operated by the enterprise
D VPC allows all users of the shared public cloud to access resources in the VPC on a need basis; it also allows users of the VPC to access resources of the public cloud
Ans. A B
8 Which are some of the key components of cloud infrastructure? Select two.
A IaaS providers manage the hypervisors and provision virtual instances
B IaaS providers deploy the middleware and install required applications on the virtual machines
C IaaS providers manage large data centers that contain the physical machines required to power the various layers of abstraction on top of them
D IaaS providers manage the hypervisors and end-users provision the virtual instances
Ans. C, D
9 If an organization needs to run a highly sensitive and mission-critical application with unpredictable performance and capacity requirements, which of the following models would best meet its requirements
A Private Cloud
B Public Cloud
C On-premise Data Centers
D Hybrid Cloud
Ans. D
10 Is it possible to run completely different operating systems on Virtual Machines (VMs) that are on a single host? If yes, what makes this possible?
A Yes, Containerization makes it possible—to have VMs that are unique physical entities, so you can have completely different Operating Systems on them.
B No, it is not possible—VMs are software-based versions of a single host. They cannot have different environments from one another.
C No, it is not possible—A single host can only work as one single virtual environment, and can, therefore, have only one environment.
D Yes, Virtualization makes it possible— to have VMs, running different operating systems, on a single host.
Ans. D
Which are the three main types of users in a comprehensive security strategy? (select one)
- Application users, third-party business organizations, and vendors
- Administrative users, developer users, and application users
- Organizational users, internet and social-based users, and application users
- Organizational users, internet and social-based users, and vendors
You can use this template as a guide to the simple editor markdown and OLX markup to use for multiple-choice problems. Edit this component to replace this template with your own assessment.
Encryption is considered the last line of defense in a layered security model.
- True
- False
11 Which of these scenarios is ideal for the use of bare metal servers, as opposed to virtual servers? Select two
A CPU and I/O intensive workloads
B Low cost to use
C Huge performance and strict security and compliance requirements
D Workloads that require limited throughput and performance
Ans. A, C
12 Subnets are the main area where security is implemented in the cloud. What is used to provide security at the virtual instance level in subnets?
A Access Control Lists or ACLs
B Virtual Private Cloud or VPC
C Load Balancers
D Security Groups or SGs
Ans. D
13 Which of these are features of Object Storage? Select two.
A Storage is attached to compute nodes using a fiber network
B You can directly use Object Storage without attaching it to a compute node
C Object Storage can be mounted on multiple compute nodes via an ethernet network
D Object storage is effectively infinite
Ans. B, D
14 There are four types of cloud storage available. Which storage type is ephemeral or non-persistent?
A Block storage
B File storage
C Object storage
D Direct Attached storage
Ans. D
14 What is the main benefit of a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?
A Distribute tasks, workloads, and network traffic
B Network topology
C Speed, it makes your website faster by serving files from a location closer to the user
D Enhanced control over network traffic by routing traffic to specified
resources
Ans. C
15 What are the key elements of a hybrid multicloud strategy?
A For seamless working, it is recommended that if you’re subscribed to the infrastructure services of a cloud provider, you should subscribe to the application services provided by the same vendor.
B Embraces a mix of cloud models and services as long as they are from the same cloud service provider
C Embraces a mix of cloud models while creating a vendor lock-in with the cloud provider
D Connects an organization’s on-premise private cloud and third-party public cloud into a single infrastructure
Ans. D
16 What is an attribute that distinguishes serverless computing from other compute models?
A The serverless model requires NO provisioning of servers, installation of application stacks, or operation of the infrastructure BY the users/developers
B End users pay for resources as long as they are running, even if idle
C In the serverless computing environment, compute resources cannot be scaled up or down
D Serverless computing does not require any underlying servers for executing workloads
Ans. A
17 Cloud adoption is an integral part of application modernization. What are the other two important components of modernization?
A Serverless and Virtual Machines
B Microservices and DevOps
C Service Oriented Architecture and Waterfall Methodology
D VMs and Agile Methodology
Ans. B
18 According to the lecture, why does AWS exist?
A To create more spaces
B To eliminate heavy lifting task of your IT Department
C To Replace your entire IT Department
D To Replace your hardware
Ans. B
19 When choosing an AWS Region, which factors should you consider? (Select all that apply)
A Latency
B Cost
C Services
D Compliance
Ans C, D
20 What is true about Regions? (Select two)
A Physical location with multiple availability zones
B All regions are located in one geographical location
C Physical location of your computers
D Each region is located separate geographical area
Ans. A, D
21 A region is comprised of at least two Availability Zones (AZs).
A True
B False
Ans A
22 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of AWS cloud computing over on-premise computing?
A Large upfront investment in the physical server
B Pay as you go pricing
C Provision compute capacity on demand
D Broad selection of hardware and software resources over the internet
Ans. A
23 Which AWS service allows you to use compute capacity without worrying about provisioning or managing underlying hardware?
A Amazon Lightsail
B Amazon S3
C Amazon DynamoDB
D Amazon ECS
Ans B
24 What does AMI stand for?
A Amazon Machine Image
B Amazon Machine Infrastructure
C Amazon Modified Instances
D None
Ans A
25 If you want to make changes to your EC2 instance, you must do it programmatically.
A True
B False
Ans. B
26 An AMI allows you to configure software, such as operating systems, web servers, etc. on your EC2 instance.
A True
B False
Ans A
27 When creating a VPC, what items must you include? (Select two)
A Security group
B Region
C Internet Gateway
D IP Range
Ans B, D
28 A subnet is a subset of IP ranges for a VPC.
A True
B False
Ans A
29 What must you configure to allow your VPC to communicate to the internet?
A Region
B Availability Zone
C Subnet
D Internet Gateway
Ans. D
30 How we can account for high availability for our VPC?
A Create a new public and private subnet in new VPC
B Change public subnet to private
C Create standby RDS in public subnet
D Create a new public and private subnet in Availability Zone
Ans. D
31 What type of storage is Amazon S3 used for?
A File
B Object
C Block
D Image
Ans B
32 Databases and EC2 instances are most performant using block-level storage.
A True
B False
Ans A
33 It’s the end of the day Friday and you decided to stop your EC2 instance that’s connected to your EBS volumes. On Monday morning, your developer starts up a brand new EC2 instance. What happens to your EBS volumes when you start up a new EC2 instance?
A Same EBS volume reattached to a new EC2 instance
B EBS volume is terminated
C Nothing, you can start to brand new EC2 instances
D None
Ans. A
34 You must create an S3 bucket before uploading your data to S3.
A True
B False
Ans A
35 You’ve uploaded a PDF document to your S3 bucket. When you try to access the object’s URL, you get an error. What could be the cause of this error?
A You can’t upload pdf documents to S3
B You have exceeded the maximum upload limit
C Your object does not have public read access
D Your object does not have private read access
Ans. C
36 Amazon EBS can attach to only one EC2 instance at a time.
A True
B False
Ans. B
37 What is an advantage of using Amazon EFS over Amazon EBS?
A EBS can be attached to multiple EC2 instances simultaneously
B EBS can only be live one subnet
C EFS can only be live one subnet
D EFS can be attached to multiple EC2 instances simultaneously
Ans. D
38 Which of the following database challenges does Amazon RDS help you manage? (Select all that apply)
A Schema Generation
B Os patches and installation
C High Availability
D Database Backup and Server Maintenance
Ans B,C, D
39 Which of the following statements best describes Amazon RDS?
A An in-memory cache services
B Very high throughput, very low latency, fast NoSQL services
C A database engine that can be used with MySQL server, oracle, Microsoft SQL, AmazonArora, postgrey
D A fast fully managed, petabyte-scale data warehouse solution used to efficiently analyze your data using your existing business processing tools.
Ans C
40 When creating a new database through RDS, you can view the estimated monthly costs before you provision your database.
A True
B False
Ans A
41 Unlike RDS, with Amazon DynamoDB you don’t need to define the underlying hardware you’re running your database on.
A True
B False
Ans A
42 What service distributes incoming traffic across multiple instances?
A Amazon ELB
B Amazon S3
C Amazon EFS
D Amazon EBS
Ans A
43 Amazon ELB can only be used with public subnets.
A True
B False
Ans B
44 Your users are reporting latency in your services. Traditionally with on premise architecture, you would have to page your admin so she could launch another server to balance the load on your servers. How can you automate this with AWS?
A Create two EC2 instances so you will never be in issue
B Setup amazon Cloudtrail to monitor latency issue
C Ask your users to upload their data on Amazon S3
D Create an amazon Cloudwatch Alarm that triggers an auto-scaling
Ans D
45 When creating an Auto Scaling group, you must define the minimum and a maximum number of instances to scale to.
A True
B False
Ans B
46 In the Shared Responsibility Model, for which aspect of securing the cloud is AWS responsible?
A Security of the Cloud
B Security for the Cloud
C Security in the Cloud
D Security to the Cloud
Ans. A
47 What service alerts you when you’ve exceeded your costs over a specific time period?
A AWS Budget
B AWS Pricing
C AWS Cloudwatch
D AWS Trusted Advisor
Ans A
48 AWS Trusted Advisor provides information for you to reduce costs, increase performance, increase security, and optimize your AWS environment
A True
B False
Ans A
49 is a complete operating environment with applications, management, and the user interface.
A IaaS
B SaaS
C PaaS
D All
Ans B
50 CaaS stands for service.
A Compliance
B Community
C Communication
D Computer
Ans. C
51 What security mechanism can add an extra layer of protection to your AWS account in addition to a username-password combination?
A TCP-Transport Layer Protocol
B MFA-Multi Factor Authentication
C Iris Scan Service – ISS
D Secure Bee Service or SBS
Ans. B
52 If a user wanted to read from a DynamoDB table what policy would you attach to their user profile?
A AmazonDynamoDBFullAccess
B AWSLambdaInvocation-DynamoDB
C AWSDynamoDB ReadonlyAccess
D AWSLambdaDynamoDBExecutableRole
Ans C
53 What are valid MFA or Multi-factor Authentication options available to use on AWS? Select all that apply.
A Gemalto Token
B Blizzard Authentication
C Yubi Key
D Google Authenticator
Ans. A. C
54 What format is an Identity and Access Management policy document in?
A XML
B CSS
C HTML
D JSON
Ans. D
55 Which are valid options for interacting with your AWS account? Select all that apply.
A Command Line Interface
B Software Development Kit
C Application Programming Interface
D AWS Console
Ans. A,D
56 Which solution below grants AWS Management Console access to an DevOps enginee
A Enable SSO on AWS account using federation and AWS IAM
B Create a user for the security engineer in AWS Cognito user pool
C Create IAM user for the engineer and associate relevant IAM managed policy to IAM roles
D IAM AWS organization to scope down IAM roles and grant the security engineer access to this IAM roles
Ans. C
57 Which of these IAM policies cannot be updated by you?
A Managed Policy
B Inline Policy
C Group Policy
D Customer Managed Policy
Ans. A
58 Which of these services can establish a trusted relationship between your corporate Active Directory and AWS?
A AWS Cognito
B AWS SSO
C IAM
D AD Connector
Ans D
59 What is the main difference between Cognito User Pool and Cognito Identity Pool?
A User pool can not use public identity providers
B Identity pool provides temporary AWS Credentials
C Only use pool has a feature to access MFA
D User pool support both authentications and authentication identities
Ans D
60 How do you audit IAM users' access to your AWS accounts and resources?
A Using Cloudtrail
B Using Cloudwatch
C Using AWS config
D Using AWS Trust Advisor
Ans. C
61 Which statements is true?
A You can attach only one ENI(Elastic Network Interface) to each EC2 instance launch by VPC
B By default each instance that you launch into non-default subnet has a public IP address IPv4
C To use AWS private link, the VPV required to have NAT
D Traffic within availability zone, between AZ in all region, are routed over the AWS private global network
Ans D
62 What is a Security Group?
An Act as firewall associated with EC2
B Act as firewall associated with subnets
C Control who in your organization has permission to create and manage the VOC flag
D Capture information about IP Traffic
Ans A
63 How many types of VPC Endpoints are available?
A Many, Each AWS Services supported by 1 type of VPC Endpoints
B Amazon S3 and DynamoDB
C Gateway Endpoint and Interface Endpoint
D VPC
Ans C
64 Which of these AWS resources cannot be monitored using VPC Flow logs?
A VPC
B A subnet in a VPC
C An network interface attached to EC2
D An network interface attached to VPC
Ans C
65 You can route traffic to a NAT Gateway through:
A Site to site VPN connection
B AWS Direct Connect
C VPC Peering
D None of the above
Ans. A
66 What AWS Services keeps a record of who is interacting with your AWS Account?
A Amazon Servicelog
B Amazon Cloudtrail
C AWS Accoutmonitor
D AWS Auditor
Ans D
67 Which of the following are monitoring and logging services available on AWS? Select all that apply.
A AWS Clouwatch
B AWS Logger
C AWS Behheve
D AWS Config
Ans. A, D
68 Which of the following sections from Trusted Advisor exists under the Well-Architected Framework as a pillar as well?
A Security
B Operational Excellence
C Fault Tolerance
D Cost Transparency
Ans. A
69 If you wanted to accomplish threat detection in your AWS Infrastructure, which of the following services would you use?
A AWS Guard duty
B AWS ThreatDetector
C AWS DynamoDB
D AWS S3
Ans. A
70 Which AWS Service has an optional agent that can be deployed to EC2 instances to perform a security assessment?
A AWS Assessor
B Amazon EC2Deploy
C Amazon agent
D Amazon inspector
Ans. D
71 How many laws exist for Cloudonomics by Weinman?
A 4
B 5
C 10
D 15
Ans. C
72 Point out the wrong statement :
A Google App Engine allows a developer to scale an application immediately
B The customer relationship management provider SalesForce.com has a development platform called Force.com that is an IaaS offering
C A cloud computing provider can become a hub master at the center of many ISVs offerings
D None of the mentioned
Ans. B
73 Weinman argues that a large cloud’s size has the ability to repel and DDoS attacks better than smaller systems do.
A sniffers
B botnets
C trojan horse
D all of the mentioned
Ans. B
74 The reputation for cloud computing services for the quality of those services is shared by
A replicas
B shards
C tenants
D all of the mentioned
Ans. C
75 Cloud is standardized in order to appeal to the majority of its audience.
A SVAs
B SLAs
C SALs
D None of the mentioned
Ans. B
76 The cost of a cloud computing deployment is roughly estimated to be :
A CostCLOUD = Σ(UnitCostCLOUD / (Revenue – CostCLOUD))
B CostCLOUD = Σ(UnitCostCLOUD x (Revenue + CostCLOUD))
C CostCLOUD = Σ(UnitCostCLOUD x (Revenue – CostCLOUD))
D All of the mentioned
Ans. C
76 A service provider gets the same benefits from a composable system that a user does.
A CaaS
B AaaS
C PaaS
D All of the mentioned
Ans. C
77 From the standpoint of an, it makes no sense to offer non-standard machine instances to customers.
A CaaS
B AaaS
C PaaS
D IaaS
Ans. D
78 Which of the following is the highest degree of integration in cloud computing?
A CaaS
B AaaS
C PaaS
D SaaS
Ans. D
79 Which of the following component is called hypervisor?
A VMM
B VMC
C MV
D None
Ans. A
80 Which of the following offers virtual appliances, including ones based on Windows, all of which run on VMware Player?
A Bagvapp
B Jcinacio
C HelpdeskLive
D All of the mentioned
Ans. A
81 Which of the following is the fundamental unit of the virtualized client in an IaaS deployment?
A work unit
B workspace
C workload
D all of the mentioned
Ans. C
82 How many types of virtual private server instances are partitioned in an IaaS stack?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Ans. D
83 Which of the following is a classic example of an IaaS service model?
A AWS
B Azure
C Cloudera
D All of the mentioned
Ans. A
84 serves as a PaaS vendor within the Google App Engine system.
A Google
B Amazon
C Microsoft
D All of the mentioned
Ans. A
85 is the most refined and restrictive service model.
A SaaS
B PaaS
C IaaS
D DaaS
Ans. B
86 Amazon Web Services offers a classic Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) approach to :
A SaaS
B PaaS
C IaaS
D DaaS
Ans. B
87 SaaS supports multiple users and provides a shared data model through model.
A single-tenancy
B multi-tenancy
C multiple-instance
D None
Ans. B
88 Which of the following should be replaced with the question mark in the following figure?
A Abstraction
B Virtualization
C Mobility Pattern
D All of the mentioned
Ans. B
89 Which of the following is Type 1 Hypervisor?
A Wind River Simics
B Virtual Server 2005 R2
C KVM
D LynxSecure
Ans. D
90 In a scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly onto the hardware.
A paravirtualization
B full virtualization
C emulation
D None of the mentioned
Ans. B
91 Which of the following visualization is most commonly achieved through a mapping mechanism where a logical storage address is translated into a physical storage address?
A Storage
B Network
C Software
D None of the mentioned
Ans. A
92 AMI imaging service is provided by Amazon for :
A Private use
B Public use
C Pay per use
D All of above
Ans. D
93 Which of the following runs on Xen Hypervisor?
A Azure
B AWS EC2
C AWS EC3
D All of the mentioned
Ans. B
94 Which of the following layer serves as the mediator for file I/O, the memory I/O, and application calls and response to DLLs?
A Application
B client
C virtualization
D None of the mentioned
Ans. C
95 Which of the following performance analysis tool lets you save its state for Windows?
An MMS
B CloudWatch
C Microsoft Management Console
D All of the mentioned
Ans. C
96 Which of the following instance has 68.4GB of memory and 26 EC2 Compute Units?
A High-Memory Quadruple Extra Large Instance
B Small Instance
C Micro Instance
D High-CPU Extra Large Instance
Ans A
97 Which of the following utility is used to monitor traffic in Windows?
A Microsoft Network Monitor
B Microsoft Performance Monitor
C Microsoft Perfmon
D None of the mentioned
Ans. A
98 Which of the following packet sniffer was formerly called Ethereal?
A TCPdump
B Wireshark
C Ntop
D None of the mentioned
Ans. B
99 Which of the following is used to evaluate your own cloud application’s network performance?
A Path Cloud
B PathView Cloud
C View Cloud
D All
Ans. B
100 Application frameworks provide a means for creating hosted applications using IDE
A PaaS
B SaaS
C CaaS
D All
Ans. B